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Question Answer
What are the rolls of a fitness professional? Instructor. Coach. Leader. Facilitator. Referral Source.
What are 5 ideal Qualities and Characteristics of a fitness professional? Empathy. Respectfulness. Prospecting. Genuiness. Life Long Lerner.
How long is a NETA PT certification good for? 2 years
How many continuing education credits are needed within the 2 years of certification? How many of them need to be from NETA? 20 are needed. At least 6 are needed from NETA.
What does an instructor do? Provides information and explanation.
What does a Coach do? Asks questions, facilitates change
What does a Leader do? Provides optimism, sets the course.
What does a Role Model do? Demonstrates habits of healthy living.
What does a referral source do? establishes a multi-disciplinary network of health care professionals.
What does it mean to build rapport? having a positive interaction or connections with two or more people.
What are the 3 components to building rapport? Mutual attentiveness. Positivity. Coordination.
What are the 8 strategies used to make a positive first impression? Attire. Personal Hygiene. Attentiveness. Body Language. Professional Greeting. Listen. Speech. Be Courteous.
What percentage of a message may be attributed to: What you say. How you say it. and Body language? 7% of what you say. 38% how you say it. 55% body language.
What are the 6 active listening skills? Paraphrasing. Summarizing. Repeating. Reflecting. Minimal Encouragers, Questioning.
What is paraphrasing? re-stating using similar words and similar phrase arrangement to those used by the speaker.
What is Reflecting? stating what you heard the speaker say using your own words, often making an assumption with regard to the underlying meaning of the statement.
What is repeating? re-stating the message using exactly the same words used by the speaker.
What is summarizing? stating key points of a thought or conversation and is often used to change the topic of discussion.
What are minimal encouragers? words or short phrases used to encourage the speaker to continue. Also may be nonverbal movements.
What is questioning? gathering information using both open ended and close ended questions.
What model of behavioral change is known at the "stages of change" model? Transtheoretical Model.
Explain the Pre-contemplation stage of the transtheoretical model. Doesn't see a problem with their lifestyle. "I can't/I won't attitude." Doesn't plan on working out within the next 6 months.
Explain the Contemplation stage of the transtheoretical model. "I may" attitude. Weighs the pros and cons. Plans on working out within the next 6 months.
Explain the Preparation stage of the transtheoretical model "I will" attitude. Plans on exercising within the next month. Buys workout clothes, joins a gym, etc.
Explain the Action stage of the transtheoretical model. Most unstable stage. "I am" attitude. Performing exercise activity at the minimum level of 150 mins./week.
Explain the Maintenance stage of the transtheoretical model. Positive attitude and motivated. "I still am" attitude. Stuck to regular physical activity at above minimum levels for 6 consecutive months.
What is Self efficacy? situational or task specific self confidence.
What is the Self efficacy Theory (SET)? describes how an individual forms perceptions regarding their own ability to engage in certain behavior.
What are factors that influence self efficacy? Past accomplishments. Mastery experiences. vicarious experiences./social modeling. social persuasion (verbal encouragement). Physiological states sensations while exercising). Affective states (emotions).
What does SMART in smart goals stand for? Specific. Measurable. Attainable. Relevant. Time-Bound.
What are action oriented goals? Short term goals that focus on action it takes to achieve them.
What are Outcome oriented goals? Long term goals that focus on the outcome of continuous actions.
What is the Social Cognitive Theory (SCT)? suggests that behavior change and learning is affected by three variables including personal characteristics, environmental factors. and behavioral attributes.
What is the Self Determination Theory (SDT)? suggests that individuals seek to satisfy three primary phsychosocial needs including a need for autonomy, a need to demonstrate competence, a need for meaningful social interactions.
What is intrinsic motivation? Internal motivation that comes from the feeling of accomplishment or a challenge.
What is extrinsic motivation? outside motivation from things like financial incentive, awards and competitions, and approval from others.
What are the 9 ways to motivate your clients? enjoyable activities. availability and convenience. emphasize health benefits vs. appearance. social support. develop a plan. behavioral contracts. acknowledge and reward progress. self monitoring and tracking.
What are essential characteristics of an effective wellness coach? empathy. compassion. acceptance.
What is motivational interviewing? a collaborative conversation style for strengthening a person's own motivation and commitment to change. It is performed in partnership with the client, which the client is the expert about themselves.
What are the 4 key processes to motivational interviewing? Engaging. Focusing. Evoking. Planning.
Explain the engaging process of motivational interviewing. Establishes a rapport and trust with the client.
Explain the focusing process of motivational interviewing. When the coach identifies and maintains the direction of the conversation regarding change.
Explain the Evoking process of motivational interviewing. discovering the clients motivation, helping them overcome their fears of change, and helping them figure out what to change to make the new changes happen.
Explain the planning process of motivational interviewing. developing commitment to change and creating a plan.
What are 4 communication skills that are used by coaches during motivational interviewing conversations? Open ended questions. Affirming. Reflective listening. summarizing.
Explain what rating rulers. Assesses how important behavioral change is to the client and how confident they are in their abilities. They use "on a scale of 1-10" questions.
What are the 4 principles to motivational interviewing? Empathy. Develop Discrepancy. Roll with resistance. Support self-efficacy.
What are the 5 underlying principles of the appreciative theory? Positive Principle. Constructive principle. Simultaneity principle. anticipatory principle. Poetic Principle.
What is the positive principle? positive thoughts, energy, and emotions builds the motivation towards behavioral change.
What is the constructionist principle? Positivity stems from conversations and interactions.
What is the simultaneity principle? Positive questions and reflections simultaneously create positive conversations and interactions.
What is the anticipatory principle? when we see a positive future we will get one.
What is the poetic principle? we will get more of what we focus on.
What does the GROW coaching model stand for? Goal. Reality. Options. What Will you Do?
What is the anatomical position? Body is erect, feet are positioned hip width apart w/toes pointing forward, the arms are hanging to the sides with the palms facing forward and head and eys looking forward.
What is the median? divides the body into the right and left sides.
What is the medial? Closer to the middle of the body.
What is lateral? away from the center of the body.
What is Superior? closer to the head.
What is inferior? Closer to the feet.
What is proximal? closer to the attached end of a limb or the center of the body.
What is distal? away from the attached end of a limb or the center of the body.
What is anterior? on or towards the front of the body.
What is posterior? on or towards the back of the body.
What is superficial? closer to or on the surface of the body.
what is deep? further beneath or aware from the surface of the body.
What are the 3 planes of motion? Frontal. Saggital. Transverse.
What is the frontal plane? divides the body vertically into the anterior and posterior aspects.
What is the saggital plane? divides the body vertically into right and left halves.
What is the transverse or horizontal plane? divides the body horizontally into upper and lower segments.
What are the 4 main functions of the skeletal system? supportive framework for the body. lever system to produce movement in collaboration with skeletal muscles. protects vital organs. storage site for essential minerals.
How many bones are in the axial skeleton? 80
How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton? 126
What does the axial skeleton consist of? skull, sternum, spinal column, and the ribs.
What does the appendicular skeleton consist of? upper and lower ligaments including the shoulder and pelvic girdle.
What are the 5 segments of the spinal column from superior to inferior? Cervical. Thoracic. Lumbar. Sacrum. Coccyx.
How many vertebrae are in the cervical segment of the spinal column? 7
How many vertebrae are in the thoracic segment of the spinal column? 12
How many vertebrae are in the lumbar segment of the spinal column? 5
How many vertebrae are in the sacrum segment of the spinal column? 5 fused vertebrae.
How many vertebrae are in the coccyx segment of the spinal column? 2-4 fused vertebrae.
What are synarthrodial joints? held together by tough, fibrous connective tissue making them an immmovable joint such as those found between suture joints of the skull.
What are amarthrodial joints? a slightly movable joint that is often connected by fibrocartilaginous tissue (pad or disc) such as that found between two adjacent vertebrae.
What are diarthrodial joints? freely movable joints and are the most common in the body. They are also called synovial joints arising from their characteristic synovial membrane and synovial fluid which lubricates the joint.
What is a pivot joint and what is an example? The ball like head of one bone fits into the cup shaped socket of another. It is the most freely movable joint in all planes of motion. An example would be the shoulder and the hip.
What is a hinge joint and what is an example? consists of C shaped surface of one bone rotating or swinging around the rounded surface of another. It allows for movement on one plane of motion. An example would be the elbow and the knee.
What is a saddle joint and what is an example? The convex surface of one bone sitting in the concave surface of another. It is limited in its ability to rotate, but allows for movement in 2 planes of motion. An example would be the thumb.
What is an ellipsoid joint and what is an example? the oval shaped surface of one bone fits into the elongated or elliptical shaped cavity of another. An example would be the joints between the metacarpals and the phalanges.
What is a Pivot Joint and what is an example? allows for rotation as the ring of one bone fits into or around the process of another. An example would be the atlas and axis of the cervical spine and the radius and the ulna.
What is a gliding joint and what is an example? flat surface of two adjacent bones. It allows bones to glide in all directions over each other. An example would be the joints between the carpals in the hand.
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue within the body? Cardiac. Smooth. Skeletal.
Explain cardiac muscle tissue. involuntary. It is efficient, fatigue resistant, and helps pump the heart.
Explain Smooth muscle tissue. involuntary. It moves food through the digestive system and blood through the arteries and veins.
Explain skeletal muscle tissue. Voluntary muscle that stabilizes and moves the body.
Explain the first 3 events in the sliding filament theory. electrical impulse delivered by central nervous system via motor neuron to muscle fiber. head from myosin bind w/actin to create actin-myosin cross bridges. actin filaments are pulled in sliding fashion across myosin filaments.
Explain the last 2 events in the sliding filament theory. sliding action causes zlines to move closer together which shortens sacomere w/out myofilaments changing length. Impulse from nervous system subsides allowing the actin-myosin cross birdge to uncouple, returning the muscle to its normal resting length.
What is isometric action? produces force, with no resulting movement or change in muscle length.
What is isotonic action? The muscle shortens and lengthens as force is generated against an external load. An example would be the bicep curl.
What is the concentric phase? When the muscle shortens as an external load is lifted.
What is the eccentric phase? When the muscle lengthens as an external load is lowered.
What is the prime mover/agonist of the shoulder joint and elbow joint during the bench press exercise? Shoulder – Pectoralis Major. Elbow – triceps.
What is the antagonist at the elbow joint during the bench press? biceps
What is the synergist of the shoulder joint during the bench press? anterior deltoid.
During a shoulder extension what are the agonist, synergist, and antagonist muscles? Agonist – latissimus dorsi. Syndergist – Teres Major Antagonist – Anterior deltoid.
During elbow flexion, what are the agonist, synergist, and antagonist muscles? Agonist – biceps. synergist – brachiallis. Antagonist – triceps
During scapular retraction, what are the agonist, synergist, and antagonist muscles? agonist – rhomboids. synergist – middle trapezius. antagonist – pectoralis minor.
What is flexion? A movement that decreases the angle at a joint bringing two body segments closer together.
What is extension? A movement that increases the joint angle bringing two body segments further apart and towards the anatomical position.
What is abduction? a movement of a body part in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body.
What is adduction? a movement of a body part int he frontal plane toward the midline of the body.
what is internal rotation? movement around the long axis of a bone toward the body.
what is external rotation? a movement around the long axis of a bone away from the body.
what is horizontal abduction? a movement of a body part in the transverse plane away from the midline of the body.
what is horizontal adduction? a movement of a body part it in the transverse plane toward the midline of the body.
What is dorisflexion? movement that brings the top (dorsal side) of the foot toward the anterior aspect of the lower leg.
what is plantar flexion? movement of the bottom (plantar surface) of the foot toward the ground.
What is pronation? refers to the rotational movement turning the palms of the hand down/posteriorly.
what is supination? rotational movement turning palms of the hands up or anteriorly.
During the concentric phase of the barbell squat, what is the proximal joint action and muscle? hip extension and gluteus maximus and hamstrings.
During the concentric phase of the barbell squat, what is the distal joint action and muscle? knee extension and quadriceps.
During the concentric phase of the push-up what is the proximal joint action and muscle? shoulder horizontal adduction and pectoralis major
During the concentric phase of the push-up what is the distal joint action and muscle? elbow extension and triceps
During the concentric phase of the lat pulldown what is the proximal joint action and muscle? shoulder adduction and lattimus dorsi
During the concentric phase of the lat pulldown what is the distal joint action and muscle? elbow flexion and the biceps
During the concentric phase of the shoulder press what is the proximal joint action and muscle? shoulder abduction and middle deltoid
During the concentric phase of the shoulder press what is the distal joint action and muscle? elbow extension and triceps
During the concentric phase of the seated narrow row, what is the proximal joint action and muscle? shoulder extension and lattimus dorsi
During the concentric phase of the seated narrow row, what is the distal joint action and muscle? elbow flexion and biceps
During the concentric phase of the tricep pushdown what is the proximal joint action and muscle? elbow extension and triceps
During the concentric phase of the tricep pushdown, what is the distal joint action and muscle? single joint exercise
During the concentric phase of the stability ball crunch what is the proximal joint action and muscle? spinal flexion and rectus abdominus
During the concentric phase of the stability ball crunch what is the distal joint action and muscle? single join exercise
During the concentric phase dumbbell bicep curl what is the proximal joint action and muscle? elbow flexion and the biceps
During the concentric phase what is the distal joint action and muscle? single joint exercise.
During the concentric phase of the cable chest fly what is the proximal joint action and muscle? shoulder horizontal adduction and pectoralis major
During the concentric phase of the cable chest fly what is the distal joint action and muscle? single joint exercise.
What is Newton's 1st law of motion? Law of Inertia. An object at rest will stay at rest and and object in motion will stay in motion unless an external force acts upon it.
What is inertia? the reluctance of an object to change its current state of motion.
what is equilibrium? when the forces acting upon an object are equal.
What is rotational inertia? the reluctance of a body segment or object to rotate around an axis of rotation/joint.
What is Newton's 2nd law of motion? Law of acceleration. A force applied to an object causes acceleration of that object in the direction of the force being applied and proportional to the mass of the object.
What is angular momentum? generated by the mass of the object, the distance of the object from the axis of rotation, and the speed (velocity).
What is Newton's 3rd law of motion? Law of action/reaction. when an object applies force to another object, there is an equal and opposite force applied back to the original object.
What are ground reaction forces? the ground exerts an equal and opposite force back against the foot which is dispersed throughout the body's kinetic chain.
What is the moment arm? the perpendicular distance from the fulcrum to the applied force.
What is the force arm? perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation to the application of the muscle force on the bone.
what is the resistance force? external force applied to the body
what is the resistance arm? perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation tot he center mass of the resistance force.
What is a 1st class lever? muscle forces and resistance force act on opposite sides of a fulcrum, similar to a seesaw.
What is an example of a 1st class lever? skull moving forward and backward on the 1st cervical vertebrae.
What is a 2nd class lever? muscle force and resistance force on the same side of the fulcrum so that muscular force is applied through a longer arm than the opposing force.
What is an example of a 2nd class lever? rolling onto the balls of the feet – the ball of the foot is the axis/fulcrum and the calf muscle and soleus are the muscle force, and body weight is the resistance force.
What is a 3rd class lever? application of muscle force and a resistance force on the same side of the axis/fulcrum with muscle force acting through a shorter moment arm.
what is an example of a 3rd class lever? dumbbell lateral raises – the glenohumeral joint (shoulder) is the axis of rotation, deltoid muscle is muscle force, and gravity is the resistance force.
What is the first part of the pathway of blood flow through the pulmonary arteries? Deoxygenated blood is carried to the heart by the veins, which deliver blood to the right atrium. The deoxygenated blood moves to the right ventricle where it is pumped to the lungs through the pulmonary arteries.
What is the pathway of blood flow after it is pumped to the lungs through the pulmonary arteries ending with the left ventricle? In the lungs the blood is re-oxygenated by the air inhaled while air is diffused through the capillaries surrounding the aveoli within the lungs. The oxygenated blood returns to the heart via pulmonary veins and enters the left atrium
What is the pathway of blood flow after the oxygenated blood is returned to the heart through the left atrium ending with blood being supplied to tissue and muscle fibers? Oxygenated blood moves to the left ventricle where it is pumped through the aorta and carried by the arteries to the tissues throughout the body. Within skeletal muscle, blood is supplied to muscle fibers through capillaries.
What is the pathway of blood flow after it is supplied to tissues and muscle fibers throughout the body ending the full pathway of blood? Oxygen is extracted from blood and carried into the mitochondria for energy production via aerobic metabolic pathways. The blood is now deoxygenated and continues back to the heart.
What is the Fick equation? Oxygen Consumption = Cardiac output X Oxygen extraction
What is venous blood? Deoxygenated blood.
What is heart rate? Number of beats or cardiac cycles of the heart per minute.
What is resting heart rate? Number of beats at rest
What is stroke volume? The amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle per minute.
What is cardiac output? product of heart rate and stroke volume per minute. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute.
What is systolic blood pressure? pressure against the arterial walls during a left ventricular contraction.
What is diastolic blood pressure? pressure in the arterial vascular system during the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.
What is oxygen extraction? the amount of oxygen removed from arterial blood.
What is oxygen consumption? amount of oxygen used by the body.
What is the adaptation of resting, submaximal, and maximal heart rates to regular CRE with regard to heart rate? resting – decreases. submaximal – decreases. maximal – stays the same.
What is the adaptation of resting, submaximal, and maximal heart rates to regular CRE with regard to stroke volume? they all increase.
What is the adaptation of resting, submaximal, and maximal heart rates to regular CRE with regard to cardiac output? resting – decreases. submaximal – decreases or stays the same. maximal – increases.
What is the adaptation of resting, submaximal, and maximal heart rates to regular CRE with regard to systolic blood pressure? resting – decreases. submaximal – decreases. maximal – increases.
What is the adaptation of resting, submaximal, and maximal heart rates to regular CRE with regard to diastolic blood pressure? resting – decreases. submaximal – decreases. maximal – increases or decreases.
What is the adaptation of resting, submaximal, and maximal heart rates to regular CRE with regard to oxygen extraction? resting – increases. submaximal – increases. maximal – increases.
What is the adaptation of resting, submaximal, and maximal heart rates to regular CRE with regard to oxygen consumption? resting – stays the same. submaximal – stays the same or increases. maximal – increases.
What is the intensity level of the phosphagen system and what is the duration of energy that it provides? How many ATP are produced? very high to maximal levels. provides 1-10 seconds of energy. ATP – 1
What are activities/exercise examples of the phosphagen system? short sprints. 1 set of heavy resistance training. spiking a volleyball.
What is the intensity level of the Anaerobic Glycolysis and what is the duration of energy that it provides? How many ATP are produced? high levels. provides 2-3 minutes of energy. ATP – 3
What are activities/exercise examples of the Anaerobic glycolysis? middle resistance sprints. short uphill climb or bike ride. moderate intensity resistance training.
What is the intensity level of the aerobic system and what is the duration of energy that it provides? How many ATP are produced? moderate to low levels. provides over 3 minutes of energy. ATP – about 38-129
What are activities/exercise examples of the aerobic system? walking. running. swimming, dancing.
What is the limiting factor with regard tot he ability to continue deriving ATP through the phosphagen system? Creatine phosphate
What is the limiting factor with regard to the ability to continue deriving ATP through Anaerobic Glycolysis? Accumulation of lactic acid ( lactate).
What are the limiting factors with regard to the ability to continue deriving ATP from the Aerobic systems? depletion of muscle glycogen and subsequent glucose available for the muscles.
What is the motor unit? the functional component of the neuromuscular system including the neuron, axon, and innervated muscle fibers.
What is summation? the increasing magnitude of stimulation that results from successive electrical impulses sent from the nervous system to the skeletal muscle.
What is recruitment? the simultaneous activation of additional muscle fibers which contributes to greater force production.
What is the all or non principle? once the necessary threshold of stimulation has been achieved, every muscle fiber associated with a single motor unit will contract.
what is the size principle? Type 1 muscle fibers, having a lower threshold of stimulation, are activated before type 2 muscle fibers. – muscle activation goes in order of the size of muscle fibers.
What are slow twitch or type 1 muscle fibers? Slow speed of contraction, low force production, high fatigue resistance, high capillary density, produce energy through aerobic metabolism.
What are some activities/exercise examples for type 1/slow twitch muscle fibers? walking, jogging, and cycling.
What are type 2a fast twitch muscle fibers? fast speed of contraction. moderated force production. moderate resistance to fatigue. produces energy through both the aerobic and anaerobic metabolism.
What are some activities/exercise examples for type 2a fast twitch muscle fibers? speed and strength activities.
What are type 2b/type2x fast twitch muscle fibers? fast speed of contraction. high force production. low resistance to fatigue. produces energy through the anaerobic metabolism. greatest potential for hypertrophy.
What are some activities/exercise examples for the type2b/type 2x muscle fibers? power, speed, and strength.
How many calories per gram does a carbohydrate have and what is the % daily calorie goal? 4 calories per gram. 45-65% daily goal
what is the major function of a carbohydrate? preferred energy source for the body.
What are simple sugars? include monosaccharides.
what are complex carbohydrates? include polysaccharides such as glycogen and starch cellulose.
How many calories per gram does a protein have and what is the daily % calorie goal? 4 calories per gram. 10%-35% daily goal.
What is the major function of protein? builds and repairs tissue throughout the body.
What are essential amino acids? 8-10 amino acids that have to be consumed through the food we eat.
What are nonessential amino acids? 10 that the body can be produced by the body.
What are complete proteins? food that contain all the essential amino acids
What are complimentary proteins? food sources taken together that provide all the essential amino acids.
How many calories per gram does fat have and what is the daily % calorie goal? 9 calories per gram and 20%-35% daily goal.
What are the major functions of fat? provides insulation and protection for the body. transmission of nerve impulses. vitamin absorption. component of cell membranes and hormones.
What are saturated fatty acids? solid at room temperature. found in animal based products. they do not contain carbon carbon double bonds.
What are unsaturated fatty acids? liquid at room temperature. plant based foods. healthy oils. contain 1 or more carbon carbon double bonds.
What is a vitamin? organic carbon based micronutrients essential for the maintenance of normal physiological processes.
What are water soluble vitamins? vitamin b-complex. vitamin c.
what are fat soluble vitamins? vitamin A, K, E, D
What is a mineral? inorganic elements obtained from the food we consume, which are critical for many functions throughout the body.
What are the 5 major minerals? calcium. magnesium. phosphorus. potassium. sodium.
What are the 6 trace minerals? copper. iron. zinc. iodine. manganese. selenium.
Define what the recommended daily allowance (RDA) is? established at a level which meets the nutrient requirements of nearly all healthy individuals. RDA will exceed the nutrient needs for most healthy people in the population and intakes below does not mean a deficiency.
Define what Adequate Intake (AI) is? When there is insufficient scientific evidence to establish and RDA, an AI is set based on the levels of nutrients consumed by apparently healthy individuals. It is a less exact measurement of RDA but adequate for nearly all healthy individuals.
What are the 5 functions of water? regulates body temp. transportation & absorption of nutrients. digestion & elimination of waste products. protects vital organs. maintenance of blood volume.
What is exercise associated hyponatremia? When the blood's water to sodium ratio is severely elevated causing a decrease in plasma concentration.
What are signs and symptoms of hyponatremia? bloating, acute weight gain, nausea, vomiting, and headache. More serious symptoms are swelling of the brain, confusion, disorientation, seizures, coma, respiratory distress and even death.
What are the 2 over arching messages communicated by the 2010 dietary guidelines for Americans (DGA)? 1. Maintenance of caloric intake over time to achieve and sustain a healthy weight. 2. Focus on nutrient dense foods and beverages.
Define the concept of nutrient density? high contents of essential nutrients and are also low in calorie.
a key recommendation of the dietary guidelines for Americans is to reduce daily sodium intake to less than _______ mg & further reduce intake to _____mg among people 51 yrs & older & for those that have hypertenstion, diabetes, and chronic kidney disease 2,3000 and 1,500.
What is cholesterol? waxy flat like substance found only in animal based food. It is a major component of cell membranes and is needed for formation of bile salts, vitamin D, various hormones including estrogen and testosterone.
What are Low density lipoproteins (LDLs)? bad cholesterol because it can cause plaque in the arteries and is a major carrier of lipids and cholesterol in the blood.
what are high density protein (HDLs)? good cholesterol. scavengers working to transport cholesterol and lipids to the liver for metabolism and excretion.
How many calories from saturated fatty acids should be consumed and what should they be replaced with? less than 10%. should be replaced with monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids.
How much trans fatty acids should be consumed? as little as possible.
How much dietary cholesterol should be consumed a day? less than 300mg.
What are the key recommendations with regard to foods and nutrients to increase as indicated by the dietary guidelines for americans? increase veggies. eat variety of veggies. grains should be half whole grains. increase fat free/low fat milk products. eat variety of proteins. increase seafood. replace solid fats w/oils. choose foods w/more potassium, vitamin D, dietary fiber, &calcium.
What is the Adequate intake (AI) for potassium for an adult? 4700mg.
What is the benefit of increasing consumption of foods rich in potassium? it can counteract the negative effects of sodium on blood pressure.
what is he recommended aI for fiber in men and women or how many grams should be consumed per 1,000 calories? 25g for women. 38g for men. 14 per 1,000.
How do you calculate the percentage macronutrient calories in a food product? total macronutrient calories divided by the total number of calories in the food.
What is the percent daily value that is provided on nutrition facts labels? based on a 2,000 calorie diet. Each nutrient is based on 100% of the recommended amounts for that nutrient. 5% is considered low, 20% is considered high.
What is metabolism? biochemical process of breaking down macronutrients to provide the energy necessary to sustain life and activity?
What is a calorie? a unit of energy defined as the amount of heat necessary to raise the temp. of 1 gram of water 1 degree celsius.
What is positive energy balance? a state in which the consumption of calories via food exceed the total energy expenditure resulting in weight gain.
What is negative energy balance? a state in which the total energy expenditure exceeds the caloric intake resulting in weight loss.
What are four factors that contribute to total daily energy expenditure? basal metabolic rate/resting metabolic rate. Thermal effect of food. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis. Exercise/leisure time physical activity.
How many calories a day should you reduce to achieve a 1-2lbs weight loss per week? 500-1,000
For more substantial weight loss and enhanced prevention of weight regain, it is recommended to perform _____ minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity per week, which is equivalent to _____ cal/week. 250-300 minutes and 2,000 or more calories.
Adopt healthy ______ and _____ habits as sustained changes in both behaviors result in significant long-term weight loss. dietary and exercise.
What are 5 common behavioral characteristics that have been observed among those who have successfully maintains weight loss as identified through the national weight control registry. exercise extending over 2600 cal/wk or 300+ min. of moderate intensit exercise. low cal. intake – about 1300 women-1725 men. 5 meals a day. weigh yourself every week to monitor & make changes. minimize sedentary activities and tv to less than 10hrs/wk.
How do you calculate goal body weight? 1.fat weight= total body weight X body fat %.
2. lean body weight= total body weight – fat weight.
3. % lean body weight= 100 – goal % body fat.
4. goal body weight=current LBW divided by goal %LBW
What are the components of the informed consent document? explanation of purpose and procedures. Explanation for risks and discomforts. expected benefits & outcomes. Responsibilities of client. confidentiality & use info. Questions and inquiries. Assumption of risk/freedom of consent.
What are the 3 questions on the PAR-Q that have to do with heart conditions? 1. Has your doctor ever said you have a heart condition and only exercise if recommended by a doctor? 2. Do you feel pain in your chest when you exercise? 3. do you feel pain in your chest while not exercising?
What question on the PAR-Q could indicate a neurological disorder? Do you lose your balance because of dizziness or do you ever lose consciousness?
What question on the PAR-Q is designed to identify any musculoskeletal disorders? Do you have bone/joint problems that could be made worse by a change in your physical activity?
What question on the PAR-Q is used to identify hypertension? Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs for blood pressure or heart conditions?
What is the question on the PAR-Q that identifies any other issues that may limit exercise? Do you know of any other reason why you should not do physical activity?
What are the 7 major components that should be included in the personal health and lifestyle questionnaire? family history of cardiac, pulmonary, or metabolic disease. Pers. history of C, P, M, disease. Signs/symptoms of health problems. ident. of risk factors of CVD & chronic disease. past surgeries. prescribed meds. behaviors such as smoking, alcohol, diet.
What are the 3 criteria that must be present or absent in order to be considered low risk according to ACSM risk stratification? Absence of cardiac, pulmonary, or metabolic disease. Absence of signs/symptoms of disease. No more than 1 risk factor of CVD.
What are the 3 criteria that must be present or absent in order to be considered moderate risk according to ACSM risk stratification? absence of cardiac, pulmonary, or metabolic disease. Absense of signs/symptoms of disease. 2 or more risk factors of CVD.
What are the 3 criteria that must be present or absent in order to be considered high risk an should be advised to consult with a physician to obtain written medical clearance before exercise according to ACSM risk stratification? presence of cardiac, pulmonary, or metabolic disease. presence of 1 or more signs/symptoms of cardiac, pulmonary, or metabolic disease. one or more verified "yes" answers to the PAR-Q.
What are the age risk factors for CVD? Men – 45 years or older. Women – 55 years or older.
What are the family history risk factors of CVD? Myocardial infarction, coronary bypass, or sudden death before the age of 55 years in father or other male first degree relative, or before 65 years of age in mother or other female first-degree relative.
What are smoking risk factors of CVD? current cigarette smoker or those who quit within the previous 6 months.
What are the hypertension risk factors of CVD? Systolic blood pressure of 140mmHg or more or diastolic pressure of 90mmHg or above confirmed on two separate measurements or on any hypertensive medication.
What are the High Cholesterol risk factors of CVD? LDLs of 130 or above or HDLs of 40 or less. or on lipid lowering meds. or total cholesterol that is 200 or more.
What is the prediabetes risk factors of CVD? imparied fasting glucose – fasting plasma glucose of 100+ and 125 or less. Impaired glucose tolerance – 2 hour values in oral glucose tolerance test of 140+ and 199 or less. must be confirmed on 2 occasions.
What are the obesity risk factors of CVD? BMI of 30 or above. or waist circumference of 102 cm/40in. for men and 88cm/35in. for women.
What are the sedentary life style risk factors of CVD? not participating in 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise on at least 3 days per week for at least 3 months.
What is the normal resting heart rate for a healthy adult? 60-90 beats per minute.
A resting heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute which may be an indication of serious cardiac dysfunction is called what? tachycardia
What are the first two or more korotkoff sounds and what are the last audible korotkoff sounds? first two are systolic blood pressure and last audible is diastolic blood pressure.
What is normal resting blood pressure? 120/80 or less.
What are the measurements of blood pressure that indicate hypertension? 140/90 or above.
How do you calculate BMI? weight in kg divided by height in meters squared. (1lb=.45kg and 1in.=0.0254m
What are the ranges for BMI? normal – 18.5-24.9 Overweight – 25.0-29.9 Obese – 30 and above
How do you measure waist-to-hip ratio? What are high risk ranges for CVD? waist circumference divided by hip circumference. High risk for Men – 1.0-1.10/Women .96-1.05 and very high risk for men – over 1.10/women over 1.05
What is the plumb line with regards to posture? line that drops from ear to center shoulder joint along lateral midline of trunk through lumbar vertebrae, anterior to sacroiliac joint, through greater trochanter of femur. anterior to midline of knee & slightly anterior to lateral malleolus of ankle.
What is anterior pelvis tilt? shortening of the illiopsoas and erector spinae muscle groups causing an increased lordoctic curvature of the lumbar spine.
What is posterior pelvis tilt? The shortening of the hamstrings muscle group causing a flattening of the lumbar spine.
What is kyphosis? A spinal position characterized by excessive posterior curvature or rounding of the thoracic spine.
What is lordosis? a spinal position characterized by excessive anterior curvature or arching of the lumbar spine.
What is Scoliosis? A spinal position characterized by a lateral curvature of the spine frequently accompanied by rotation of vertebrae.
What is flat back? A spinal posture characterized by flexion of the upper thoracic spine, straightening of the lower thoracic spine, and flexion of the lumbar spine and a posterior pelvic tilt.
What is sway back? spinal posture characterized by a forward head position, rounding of the thoracic spine, displacement of the anterior ribs behind the hips, posterior pelvic tilt, forward swaying of the pelvis over the feet, and hyper-extended knees.
What is reciproical inhibition? process where a tight overactive agonist muscle will decrease or inhibit the neurological activation of it's antagonist muscle which results in functional weaknes of this antagonist.
What are the tight/dominant muscles in upper cross syndrome? upper trapezius. Levator scapulae. sternocleidomastoid. pectoralis majo/minor. lattimus dorsi. subscapularis.
What are the weak/passive muscles in upper cross syndrome? Deep cervical flexors. Serratus anterior. Rhomboids. Posterior deltoid. Middle and lower trapezius. Infraspinatus and teres minor.
What are the tight/dominant muscles in lower cross syndrome? illiopsoas. hamstrings. hip adductors. gastrocnemius. soleus. erector spinae. illiotobial band.
What are the weak/passive muscles in lower cross syndrome? Gluteus maximus. quads. gluteus medius/minimus. tibialis anterior. rectus abdonminus. transverse abdominus. internal/external onliques.
What are the four objectives related to the administration of health and fitness assessments? screen health status & identify those requiring referral to doctors. assist in establishing SMART goals. indentify baseline date regarding fitness level. guide/develop exercise programs. motivate performance. educate clients regarding stregnths/weaknesses
What is the order in which to perform fitness assessments? resting blood pressure. body composition analysis using skinfold calipers. rockport one mile talk test. push up test. sit and reach test.
What are the standardized procedures for obtaining skinfold caliper measurements? meas. on right side of body. caliper placed directly on skin surface 1 cm from thumb/finger. pinch is maintained while reading caliper. wait 1-2 sec. b4 reading caliper. take duplicate meas. at each site. rotate site/wait until skin regains normal texture
The YMCA 3min. step test is performed on a ___ in. step with stepping cadence by a metronome set to ___ beast per minute. The participant steps continuously for 3 minutes followed by a ______ recovery heart rate. 12 in. 96 beats per minute. one minute recovery heart rate.
What is the difference between fitness assessments intended to measure muscular strength vs. those intended to measure muscular endurance? Strength – measures maximal amount of weight that can be lifted during certain exercises or specific muscle groups. Endurance – measures number of submaximal reps. that can be performed to fatigue or within designated period of time.
What may be considered a limitation to any single assessment of flexibility? Flexibility is highly specific to the body segment, joint, and even individual movements around a joint. Therefore, no single assessment can accurately represent total body flexibility.
What are 6 health related benefits to physical activity? reduces risk of coronary heart disease, type 2 diabetes, high blood pressure, colon & breast cancer, feelings of depression. Achieve and maintain healthy weight. healthy bones, muscles&joints. improves cardio. promotes psychological well being.
For substantial health benefits, adults should do at least ____ min. a week of moderate-intensity, or _____ min. of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity or an equivalent of both. 150 minutes. 75 minutes.
Aerobic activity should be performed in episodes of how many minutes? 10
What is a MET? Unit of measurement used to define the absolute energy expenditure of a specific activity. 1 MET=3.5mL/kg/min.
Absolute exercise intensity of how many METS is considered to be moderate-intensity and how many METs is considered to be vigorous-intensity? 3.0-5.9 moderate. over 6.0 vigorous.
How do you calculate a MET level? rate of energy expenditure divided by the resting metabolic rate (3.5)
What is cardiorespiratory endurance? the ability of the circulatory and respiratory system to supply oxygen to the muscles during sustained physical activity.
What is body composition? relative amount of lean body tissues and adipose/fat tissue throughout the body.
What is muscular strength? the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to exert maximal force against external resistance.
What is muscular endurance? the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to exert repeated or continuous submaximal force without fatigue.
What is flexibility? The ability to move a joint through a full, pain free range of motion.
What is overload? Application of a physiological stress greater than the body is used to.
What is progression? As the body adapts and becomes accustomed to a specific level of exercise, the training stimulus must be increased in order to supply sufficient overload.
What is specificity? Training effect is specific to the training stimulus or stress applied to the body.
How do you build muscular strength and muscular endurance? Strength – heavy weights, low reps (1-8). Endurance – light weights, high reps (15-25).
What is reversibility? detraining effect, gradual loss of conditioning in the absence of a training stimulus.
What is variation? involves strategic and meaningful variety within an exercise program.
What are 5 objectives of a proper warm up prior to cardio? Gradual metabolic response. Prevents premature onset of blood lactic acid. Minimize oxygen deficit. Gradual increase in muscle temp. Better neural transmission. Improves coronary blood flow to muscles.Gradual redirection of blood flow. mental preparation.
What do the FITT guidelines stand for? Frequency. Intensity. Time. Type.
What are the Frequency guidelines in FITT? 2-5 days per week of combined moderate and vigorous exercise is recommended for most adults to achieve and maintain a health/fitness benefits.
What are the Intensity guidelines in FITT? Moderate to virgorous exercise is recommended for most adults and light to moderate exercise can be beneficial for those who are deconditioned.
What are the Time guidelines in FITT? Most adults should accumulate 30-60 minutes per day of moderate exercise, 20-60 minutes per day of vigorous exercise or an equivalent combination of both.
What are Type guidelines in FITT? exercise that is primarily aerobic in nature and involves the use of large muscle groups in a rhythmic and continuous manner.
What is the Karvonen Formula? 220-age = max. heart rate. max heart rate – resting heart rate = HRR. HRR X desired training % and then add the resting heart rate.
What are the objective of a cool down? muscles actively pumping to facilitate venous return of blood. reduces sudden drop of BP. ensures adequate circulation. reduces muscle spasms and cramping. reduces concentration of muscle hormones. reduces muscle soreness.
What are the benefits associated with regular participation in a resistance training program? increase lean body mass, metabolic rate & improve body comp. increase bone mineral density. reduce risk of & injury from falls. maintain capacity to perform daily tasks. coordination and balance. reduce risk of skeletal disorders. reduces lower back pain.
What is an isometric exercise and what are examples? resistance training exercises during which muscular force is exerted against a resistance, but no movement or change in the muscles length occurs. Examples are the prone plank and wall sit.
What is an isotonic exercise and what are examples? resistance training exercises involving both a concentric (shortening) and eccentric (lengthening) phase of muscle action performed against a fixed workload. Examples are any free weight exercise or selectorized machine exercises.
What is a closed chained exercise? those during which the distal end (hand or foot) of the working body part is in a fixed position and remains in constant contact with an immovable surface, typically the ground. Examples are barbell squat and the push-up.
What is an open chained exercise? those during which the distal end (hand or foot) of the targeted body part is open to freely move through space. Examples are leg extension machine and bicep curl.
Explain Gas Stage 1. alarm stage. Involves the body's initial response to the physical stress imposed by the resistance training exercise.
Explain Gas Stage 2. Resistance stage. Involves several physiological, physical, and pyschosocial adaptations to the stress.
Explain Gas Stage 3. Exhaustion stage. Extended periods of fatigue, decreases performance, lack of motivation, and possibly injury.
What are 6 signs/symptoms of overtraining syndrome? Prolonged fatigue. Increase susceptibility to illness. decrements in performance. disturbed sleep. elevated heart rate. loss of motivation. change in appetite. decreased concentration & focus. unexplained weight loss. mood disturbances.
How many days per week should each muscle group be trained? 2-3 nonconsecutive days.
How many reps are recommended to improve strength in most adults? 8-12
How many reps per set are effective in improving strength in middle-aged and older individuals starting an exercise program? 10-15
A rest period of how many hours between sessions for any single muscle group is recommended? 48 or more.
Using a body weight squat as reference, explain the progression strategy and one exercise progression that can be implements for great muscular strength, endurance, and stability. Strength- adding resistance to the exercise. Endurance – completing more reps per exercise. Stability – making the exercise less stable by reducing the base of support.
What are muscle spindle fibers? What is their role in flexibility training? sensory receptors located w/in the muscle that are sensitive to changes in length and rate of length change. When stimulated by a sudden lengthening of muscle. the spindles will cause reflexive contraction of the muscle in an effort to prevent injury
What are the Golgi tendon organs and what is their role flexibility training? snesory receptors in the musculotendinous unit that are sensitive to changes in muscular tension & rate of tension change. When stimulated by rapidly increasing or excessive tension, Golgi tendon organs cause the muscle to relax preventing injury,
What is static flexibility training? moving a muscle into a lengthened position causing mild discomfort, but not pain, which is held for an extended period of time.
What is dynamic flexibility training? utilizes slow, controlled, and rhythmic movements to actively increase joint range of motion.
What is ballistic flexibility training? utilize rapid and repetitive bouncing movements in an effort to lengthen and stretch the targets muscle.
What is proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation? includes several variations of stretching techniques that couple passive static stretching and muscle activation.
What is self-myofascial release? technique which an individual uses their own body weight to apply pressure to a target muscle using a foam roller or similar device.
What are the benefits of flexibility training? Restores muscle balance or alignment. Decreases muscle tension and stiffness. reduces joint stress. reduce risk of injury and muscle soreness. reduces lower back pain. increase sport performance. physical and mental relaxation.
How many days per week is effective in improving joint range of motion? 2-3 days or more.
How long should most adults hold a static stretch 10-30 seconds.
How many times should each flexibility exercise be performed per session? How much total flexibility training time should be performed for each exercise? 2-4 times per session. 60 seconds per exercise.
What is tendonitis? may occur when the normally smooth gliding motion of a tendon is impaired, Coupled with repetitive movement, this impairment causes irritation, inflammation, pain, & reduced range of motion.
What is a Strain? Occurs when a muscle or tendon tears as the result of a forceful contraction or overstretching.
What is Plantar Fasciitis? a painful inflammatory condition affecting the plantar fascia, the thick fibrous band of connective tissue originating on the bottom surface of the calcaneus (heel bone) & extending toward the toes, providing support to the arch of the foot.
What is should impingement syndrome? occurs when the rotator cuff tendons and subacromial bursa sac get pinched or impinged between the acromion process and the greater tubercle of the humerus.
What is Patellafemoral Pain syndrome? complaints of pain behind and around the patella that is increased with running & other activities that involve knee flexion such as squatting, stair climbing, biking, and prolonged sitting.
What are shin splints? a condition characterized by pain through the anterior and medial aspects of the lower leg, which increases during activity and persists as a dull ache following activity.
What is a stress fracture? an overuse injury that may occur when unusual or repetitive forces are chronically exerted upon a bone in excess of the bone's rate of remodeling, which leads to weakening of the bone and subsequent micro-fracture.
What does the acronym PRICE stand for? Protection. Rest. Ice. Compression. Elevation.
What are the signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion? Profuse sweating. Low BP. Elevated HR. Slightly elevated core body temp. Headache. Nausea. Weakness. Irritability. Decreased muscle coordination.
What are the signs and symptoms of a heat stroke? Hypothermia. Central nervous system dysfunction – dizziness, confusion, disorientation. Multiple organ system failure. sever dehydration. Tachycardia. Hyperventilation. Low BP. Vomiting. Diarrhea.
What are the 4 steps of the Cardiac Chain of Survival as outlines by the American Red Cross? Early recognition of CVE and early 911 call. Early administration of CPR. Early use of AED. Early arrival of advanced medical care.
What are 6 warning signs that an individual may be having a heart attack? prolonged or intermittent squeezing
What is Asthma? chronic inflammatory disease that affects the lining of the airways within the lungs. inflammation causes the smooth muscles surrounding the airways to contract.
What is osteoarthritis? degenerative joint disease in which the cartilage that covers the ends of bones deteriorates causing pain and loss of movement as bone rubs against bone.
What is rheumatoid arthritis? autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the tissues of joints.
What is type 1 diabetes? 5-50% of all cases. autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of insulin producing beta cells of the pancreas causing absolute deficiency of insulin which leads to inability to regulate blood sugar levels. needs insulin injections or pump
What is type 2 diabetes? 90-95% of all cases. results from both skeletal muscles inability to properly utilize insulin and a gradual loss in the ability of the pancreas to produce insulin. usually needs medication or requires exogenous insulin.
What is hypertension? blood pressure of 140/90 or more on 2 separate occasions. or on a hypertensive medication.
What is osteoporosis? disease affecting the skeletal system in which low bone mineral density and changes in the microstructure of the bone increases the risk fracture.
What are considerations in regards to exercise during pregnancy? exercise 3-4 days/wk. pre-pregnancy BMI less than 25 – moderate exercise. over 25 light exercise. Avoid exercise in supine position. limit repetitive isometric and high intensity exercise. avoid contact sports. avoid hot & humid environments.
Children and adolescents 6-17 yrs. old should engage in how many minutes of exercise daily? 60 minutes of combination of aerobic, muscle strengthening, and bone strengthening exercises.
What are considerations with regards to physical activity in youth and adolescents? must be mentally &physically ready to comply. supervision and instruction should be provided. enjoyment and self improvement should be emphasized. activities that generate high appropriate loading forces. emphasize hydration. decrease sedentary activities
What are considerations with regard to physical activity in older adults? 15o min. of moderate exercise per week. exercises that do not impose orthopedic stress are preferred. resistance training should be done 2 nonconsecutive times a week. stretching twice a week for 10 min. stability exercises to improve balance.
What is the Standard of Care? represents the manner with which professional services should be delivered in order to provide reasonable assurance that the expected outcome is attained without unnecessary risk of harm to the participant.
What is Negligence? failure to act according to a generally accepted standard of care consistent with the manner in which a reasonable, prudent person would have acted under similar circumstances.
What is liability exposure? any situation that increases the risk of an injury, medical emergency, or severity of medical emergencies that do occur.
What is the Scope of Practice? specific boundaries within which an individual may perform the tasks associated with their profession.
What is risk management? proactive administrative process that will help minimize liability losses for fitness professionals and the organizations they represent.
What are the 4 elements of negligence? A legal duty owed to the participant. A breach of this duty. Proximate cause. Damages sustained.
What are strategies to minimize liability exposure? conduct appropriate pre-participation assessments. recommend appropriate intensity to level of fitness. stay within scope of practice. stop exercise at warning signs. obtain proper credentials. provide safe training environment. excute emergency plan.
What are ways a personal trainer might be acting such that they are unlawfully practicing medicine? statements or offering opinions of diagnosis. rehabilitating injuries, disease, or conditions. counseling clients. providing hands on manipulation. using assessments as medical evaluation. recommending treatment plans w/meds.
What are recommendations a personal trainer should follow to avoid potential accusations of unlawfully practicing dietetics? do not perform nutrition assessments. do no design meal plans. no not provide or prescribe dietary recommendations to treat illnesses. do not encourage supplements. do not promote yourself as a nutritionist. do not counsel clients w/eating disorders.
List the documents that should be included in the file maintained for each personal training client. Waiver/release of liability. Informed consent. Health & lifestyle questionnaire. PAR-Q. Physician release. Fitness assessment tracking sheet. training logs. progress (SOAP) notes.
What are the subjective components of SOAP notes? any pertinent information verbal or written that is provided to the fitness professional by the participant.
What are the Objective components of SOAP notes? includes measurements obtained, exercises performed, or data collected with regard to the exercises and activities completed during the session.
What are the Assessment components of SOAP notes? includes fitness professionals interpretations and observations of the client's performance, tolerance, progress, and outcomes.
What are the Plan components of SOAP notes? includes statements looking forward such as expected outcomes, program progression or modification, new activities, and participant homework assignments.
What are the Do's when writing progress notes? immediately following session. Concise short sentences. abbreviations. write legibly. Note info. received from client/other health care providers. note factors from outside supervised training sessions. stay within scope of practice. sign& date each note
What are the Don'ts when writing progress notes? never document false info. Never document info that implies medical diagnosis. do not use correction fluid. do not include criticisms of staff, working conditions or judgements regarding clients.
What kind of exercises are used for osteoarthritis? Cardio and resistance training for mild to moderate cases
What kind of exercises are used for osteoporosis? Weight bearing and balance exercises
How do you make muscles stronger in lower cross syndrome? Hamstring stretches and core strengthening
What are exercises for lower back pain? Core stabilization & strength, cardio, and balanced resistance training
What can you do to help patellofemoral Syndrome? Strengthen the quads, strengthen hip adductors, external rotators and hamstring and calf stretches.
What is the acronym for recognizing stroke symptoms? FAST
What are exercises that are good for asthma? What should be avoided? Avoid areas with pollen, pollution, and cold air. Swimming is recommended, but high chlorine levels could make asthma symptoms worse.
What exercises should be done with someone with arthritis? Low impact activities like walking, biking, and swimming in warm water (83-88 degrees). Incorporate functional activities like rising from a chair and step ups to make Dailey living easier.
What risk factors are controllable for CVD? What are uncontrollable? Controllable – smoking, obesity, & inactivity. Uncontrollable – age and family history
How do you calculate skinfold body percentage? The sun of 3 skin fold measurements.

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